1.

_____________ of a future contract is not decided on the date of entry into the contract.

2.

 The SEBI (Mutual Funds) Regulations came in the year

3.

Timing is more important than Time in the market to make Wealth.

4.

Identify which of these is not an example of an unique preferences of the investors.

5.

Investment in antiques is an example of ___________ .

6.

What type of strategy is a company following if it is positioning it self as an unique one in the industry?

7.

Type of securities purchased by the fund, depends on _________________.

8. A.The quantity of the asset to be exchanged:-

9. ___________ category AIF allows you to invest into hedging and trading strategies involving derivative positions.

10.

Who appoints the Compliance Officer in  a PMS

11.

 ___________ industries rise and fall and very closely follow the general economic activity in comparison to other industries. .

12.

_____________ ratio compares the price of the stock to the earning it generates.

13.

Which Section of the companies Act 2013 defines a body corporate.

14.

Is it correct for PMS to execute OFF-MARKET transactions in the client’s account?

15.

A new category of resident has been introduced in the clause(1A) of Section 6 of the Income Tax Act with effect from Assessment Year 2021-22. What is it?

16.

Timing is more important that Time in the market to make Wealth.

17.

Bond duration is measured by _______________.

18.

 For Which Category of FPIs is Section 9A of the Income Tax Act 1961 not applicable?

19.

____________ industries rise and fall and very closely follow the general economic activity in comparison to other industries.

20.

Arbitrage opportunities can exist between _______ ________.

21.

_____________ can be a day count convention in the Fixed Income markets of the world.

22. Due to changes in immigration laws in the USA, there was a fall in IT sectors stocks. What type of risk in this?

23.

What is the fixed amount that is paid at regular intervals till the maturity of a bond known as?

24.

A Debt security has been assigned a credit rating of BBB. This means that this security is _____________ .

25.

With respect to equity markets, what does Impact Cost means.

26.

The minimum investment required for the PMS investment is _________________.

27.

Full form of PIS in NRI documentation is called:-

28.

 In the discretionary PMS, a client cannot impose which of the following condition/restriction?

29.

Non ordinary resident is a citizen who is deemed to reside in India under the _____________ of Income Tax Act

30.

Which of the following is a step in the portfolio management process.

31.

Which of the following persons/entities can invest in PMS?

32.

Which type of equity can be offered to investors in the Accumulation Phase.

33.

Identify which of these is not an example of an unique preferences of the investors.

34.

 Michael Porter is a _____________ force model.

35.

 ____________ is not considered a part of Rebalancing cost.

36.

The SEBI Fraudulent and Unfair Trade Practice Regulation prohibit a person to, directly or indirectly ____________ Securities in a fraudulent manner.

37.

____________ is not like a traditional bond

38.

___________ portfolio manager manages the funds in accordance with the direction of the client.

39.

Sharpe’s performance measure divides the portfolio’s risk premium by the_________________.

40.  Clause 12(B) of Schedule III of SEBI (Portfolio Manager) Regulation relate to ___________ .

41.

 Which of the following is not a valid classification of a portfolio management service provider

42.

Which of these form a part of the GIPS Advertising guidelines?

43. Identify which of these is not a cost investing in PMS

44.

Debt Funds have ________________.

45.

Economic MOAT is a typical example of ________.

46.

What are the bonds known as which are issued by Government Agencies?

47.

Which valuation matric is appropriate to value a firm belonging to a industry which thrives on high volume and low margin model?

48.

Cost of Equity is measured by __________.

49.

As per Chapter V of SEBI (Intermediaries) Regulation, 2008, the period for which a portfolio manager would be prohibited from taking any new assignment (in case of default) is __________

50.

Future Value of the investment is influenced by _________________.

1.

Which of these values(s) will be required for calculating Portfolio Beta?

2.

An Appropriate day count convention used in the Bond markets is _____________ .

3. Which of these values(s) will be required for calculating Portfolio Beta?

4.

 The time period restriction for a contra trade by the Designated Person of the Company is ________________.

5.

 As per which regulations is the KYC compliance been made mandatory.

6.

The currency pair of ____________ does not have futures or options trading on Indian Stock Exchanges.

7.

Identify which of these is not a cost of investing in a PMS?

8.

Identify the TRUE statement with respect to Bonds.

9.

Future Value of the investment is influenced by _________________.

10.

What is a Call Option said to be Out of the Money (OTM)?

11.

 The minimum investment required for the PMS investment is _________________.

12.

An investor wants to invest for some near term goals and he does not have much tolerance for variation. In this case the investments universe should be restricted to _________________.

13.

 Identify the ‘Incorrect’ statement with respect to Unsystematic Risk.

14.

 The Counterparty Risk in a future contract is mitigated primarily through ________________ .

15.

With respect to equity markets, what does Impact Cost means.

16.

 Investment in antiques is an example of ___________.

17.

 ___________ is the threshold limit for the suspicious transactions for which records needs to be kept as per the Money Laundering Act........

18.

Define the relationship between the prices of bond and its yield.

19.

A PMS has changed its main office address. This should be informed to________.

A. Financial Intelligence Unit – India (FIU)

B. SEBI

C. Clients

20.

Economic MOAT is a typical example of ________.

21.

 _____________ portfolio manager manages the funds in accordance with the directions of the client.

22.

The following is the requirement for granting the certificate of registration under Portfolio Managers Regulations 2020:

23.

 Except for the one that provides only the __________, every portfolio manager shall appoint a custodian in respect of securities managed or administered by it.

24.

A ______________ is a trust that pools the savings of a number of investors who share a common financial goal.

25.

Which of the following regulates Portfolio Management Services in India.

26.

The types of securities purchased by the fund, depends on _____________.

27.

The following is/are the benefits of investing through mutual funds:

28.

Arbitrage opportunities can exist between _____________.

29.

 The settlement price for determining daily mark-to-market margins for a futures contract is ___________.

30.

The counterparty risk in a futures contract is mitigated primarily through _________________.

31.

 In a Nifty 50 futures contract ,the underlying is _______.

32.

Typical putability (put option) feature of a bond :-

33.

The feature that allows the issuing firms to retire the bonds before the maturity by paying a prescribed price is called ?

34.

Coupon yield is the coupon payment as a percentage of the?

35.

 Market Risk refers to risk in equity investment arising due to ?

36.

 Under relative valuation techniques, value of a stock is estimated based upon its current price relative to variables considered to be significant in valuation, such as ______________.

37.

Under the typical assumption that a stock’s dividend will grow at a constant rate, what will be the intrinsic value of the stock if D1=Rs. 3, k = 9%, g=6%?

38.

  A trade that is squared-off during the day.

39.

The undertaking of an Intermediary to buy the unsubscribed portion of any issue, during the initial stages of an IPO is :-

40.

 Which of the following is the function of the secondary markets.

41.

 Which of the following is essential for the public issue of a debt security?

42.

When a listed company issues shares to a select group of persons, which is neither a rights nor a public issue, then it is known as _______________.

43.

 Future value of the investment is influenced by __________.

44.

____________________ represent ownership in a company that entitles its holders to participate in its profits and the right to vote on the company’s affairs.

45.

Which of the following statements about Speculation is FALSE?

46.

Liquidity Risk refers to _________?
A. The ease with which one can convert an asset into Cash
B. The possibility of realising almost the entire economic worth of an asset.

47.

If there is an uncertainty with respect to the future payment, the investor would require return more than the nominal required rate of return. The additional component is called ________.

48.

While making an application for a portfolio manager, financial information has to be submitted for which of the three years?

49.

_____________ ratio compares the price of the stock to the earning it generates.

50.

A reputed PMS firm has five group of companies. Identify which among the following is the best practice about disclosing these to the client.

Identify which of these is not a cost investing in PMS

Due to changes in immigration laws in the USA, there was a fall in IT sectors stocks. What type of risk in this?

Which of these asset classes is most likely to meet the objective of generating regular income?

Gold Exchange Traded (ETFs) can invest in__________.

Calculate the coupen yield of bond which pays a coupon of Rs 7 on a face value of Rs.100 and the market price of it is Rs.103.

As per SEBI (Investment Advisors) Regulations ,some categories of person are exempted from the requirement of registration of SEBI to provide investment advisory services incidental to their primary activity. Which of the below categories are exempted?

The standard deviation of an investment is calculated at 3% and the expected return is 14%,then_______.